A study recently reported that among a large sample of nurses (the sample included only women), women who drank more cups of coffee per day were less likely to be diagnosed with depression.
Here's how the story was covered by MSNBC.
The journalist reported the following about the study:
Participants were followed from 1996 to 2006 to see whether they were diagnosed with depression. None of the participants had depression at the study's start. Women were considered depressed if they had been given a diagnosis of clinical depression by their physician and they started taking antidepressants.
Over the 10-year period, 2,607 new cases of depression were reported. Women who drank four or more cups of coffee per day were 20 percent less likely to develop depression than those who drank one or fewer cups of coffee per week.
a.) Graph the association described in the quotes above. (Is a scatterplot or a bar graph more appropriate?)
b.) According to the journalist's report, does this study establish temporal precedence for a causal link between coffee and depression? If so, how?
c.) What third variables might you want to control for in a regression equation--to see if the relationship between coffee and depression is attributable to some outside factor?
Here's more from the journalist's article:
[An] assistant professor of psychiatry at the University of Rochester Medical Center, calls the findings "interesting," but urged caution regarding the link.
For one, the women included in the study were nurses and their caffeine consumption may not be reflective of the U.S. women population in general, Robertson-Blackmore said.
d) What kind of validity is this expert addressing?
e) Should the fact that the study included only nurses be reason enough to "urge caution regarding the link?" Consider what you read in Chapter 13.
Early in the article, the journalist betrays a lack of scientific training with the use of the word, "prove":
the new study only shows an association between coffee consumption and depression risk , and cannot prove that drinking coffee reduces risk of depression in women.
f) What do you think the journalist is trying to say here? Instead of "prove" in the quote above, what might you say instead, and why?
g) Finally, what questions can you ask about the construct and statistical validity of this study? Where might you find the answers?
Suggested answers:
a) Either a scatterplot or bar graph could work. If you did a scatter, then the x-axis would be labeled with "number of cups of coffee per day." If you did a bar graph, then you might use the category labels "one cup or less per week" and "four cups or more per day."
b) The study began by selecting a sample of women who did not have a diagnosis of depression and then followed them for several years. So we can be reasonably sure that the coffee drinking habits came first, followed by the depression diagnoses.
c) To be a plausible threat to internal validity, a third variable must correlate positively with both variables in the right way--that is, with more coffee drinking and lower depression (or conversely, with less coffee drinking and more depression). Some might say "stress" is a third variable, but that would mean stress would be associated with both more coffee drinking and less depression, which seems implausible (because usually stress is related to depression). Social life might be a plausible third variable: Women might drink more coffee in social contexts, and social life might also buffer depression symptoms. It is best to consult the original article to see which third variables were controlled for.
d) By saying that the results "may not be reflective of the U.S. women population in general," the expert is addressing external validity.
e) Without additional data, we can never say for certain whether research with one sample can generalize to other populations. The study included nurses, who may be more healthy and educated than many American women. However, it may still be reasonable to assume that nurses are similar enough in important ways to the average woman, that we can generalize their results.
f) By stating that this study "only shows an association," the journalist probably meant to emphasize that the study design does not allow a causal claim. (Remember that in science, a study never "proves" anything.)
g) To interrogate construct validity, you can evaluate how depression was measured. As the journalist reports, depression was measured by a doctor's diagnosis and a prescription for antidepressants. Is this a valid and reliable measure of depression? In addition, you can ask about the construct validity of the coffee consumption variable. Did women report on their own coffee drinking? Can they report on that accurately?
To ask about statistical validity, you can ask about the effect's statistical significance and its effect size. In fact, effect size information is carried in the statement, "Women who drank four or more cups of coffee per day were 20 percent less likely to develop depression than those who drank one or fewer cups of coffee per week." This sounds like a relatively strong effect size.